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- What is infinity divided by infinity? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
I know that $\\infty \\infty$ is not generally defined However, if we have 2 equal infinities divided by each other, would it be 1? if we have an infinity divided by another half-as-big infinity, for
- Uncountable vs Countable Infinity - Mathematics Stack Exchange
My friend and I were discussing infinity and stuff about it and ran into some disagreements regarding countable and uncountable infinity As far as I understand, the list of all natural numbers is
- Finding a basis of an infinite-dimensional vector space?
For many infinite-dimensional vector spaces of interest we don't care about describing a basis anyway; they often come with a topology and we can therefore get a lot out of studying dense subspaces, some of which, again, have easily describable bases
- infinity - What is the definition of an infinite sequence . . .
Except for $0$ every element in this sequence has both a next and previous element However, we have an infinite amount of elements between $0$ and $\omega$, which makes it different from a classical infinite sequence So what exactly makes an infinite sequence an infinite sequence? Are the examples I gave even infinite sequences?
- Proof of infinite monkey theorem. - Mathematics Stack Exchange
The infinite monkey theorem states that if you have an infinite number of monkeys each hitting keys at random on typewriter keyboards then, with probability 1, one of them will type the complete works of William Shakespeare
- elementary set theory - What is the definition for an infinite set . . .
However, while Dedekind-infinite implies your notion even without the Axiom of Choice, your definition does not imply Dedekind-infinite if we do not have the Axiom of Choice at hand: your definition is what is called a "weakly Dedekind-infinite set", and it sits somewhere between Dedekind-infinite and finite; that is, if a set is Dedekind
- general topology - Why is the infinite sphere contractible . . .
Why is the infinite sphere contractible? I know a proof from Hatcher p 88, but I don't understand how this is possible I really understand the statement and the proof, but in my imagination this
- One divided by Infinity? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Infinite decimals are introduced very loosely in secondary education and the subtleties are not always fully grasped until arriving at university By the way, there is a group of very strict Mathematicians who find it very difficult to accept the manipulation of infinite quantities in any way
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