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factorial - Why does 0! = 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange $\begingroup$ The theorem that $\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$ already assumes $0!$ is defined to be $1$ Otherwise this would be restricted to $0 <k < n$ A reason that we do define $0!$ to be $1$ is so that we can cover those edge cases with the same formula, instead of having to treat them separately
Taylor series of $\\ln(1+x)$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange Stack Exchange Network Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers
Given a 95% confidence interval why are we using 1. 96 and not 1. 64? in your Estimation of Population Mean meaning, that mean plus or minus 1 96 times its standard deviation gives 95% C I Errors distr estimation is considered to use t-distr with fatter tails than Normal distr , but with increasing size of sample errors distr can achieve the Normal Distr -- see t-tables z-tables in linked-pdf - there're
What is the integral of 1 x? - Mathematics Stack Exchange $\begingroup$ Well, calling Ln(-1) = i*Pi is already expanding the standard definition of Ln In the context described (where A -A are both real, and the log used is standard), Ln(-1) is undefined But I'd say the intelligent thing is to break it into two undefined improper integrals with one of the limits at 0 (where it is unbounded)