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Using non- to prefix a two-word phrase - English Language Usage . . . 24 Does "non-" prefixed to a two word phrase permit another hyphen before the second word? If I want to refer to an entity which is defined as the negation of another entity by attaching "non-" it seems strange to attach the "non-" only to the first word when the second one is really the word naming the entity For example, non-control freak
No, not, and non - English Language Usage Stack Exchange At the linguistics conference, there were no not non- native speakers of Esperanto They're all grammatically "valid", but they all mean different things - and pragmatically idiomatically, only the no version is likely to be used
hyphenation - Is the use of a hyphen between non and an adjective . . . Except "non" is not an English word, it is a prefix of Latin origin Which is why American style manuals will always ask you to merge it with the subsequent word, without a hyphen British rules differ, and the "non-" construction is frequently found in the literature
prefixes - When is the prefix non- used vs un-? - English Language . . . "Non-" is defined as "a prefix meaning 'not,' freely used as an English formative, usually with a simple negative force as implying mere negation or absence of something (rather than the opposite or reverse of it, as often expressed by un-)
Which is most correct: untransparent, un-transparent . . . Non-transparent Or you could use another word for non-transparent, such as "opaque" or possibly "murky," although if something is murky, there is implied some possibility of sight, though far from transparent
Is Jack of all trades, master of none really just a part of a longer . . . Variants that are relative newcomers As for the suggested longer expression "Jack of all trades, master of none, but better than a master of one," the earliest matches I could find for it are two instances from 2007 From Drum magazine (2007) [combined snippets]: The full phrase is actually " Jack of all trades, master of none, though ofttimes better than master of one " Being multi-skilled
Whats the origin of the saying, Theres no accounting for taste? It's an English adaptation of a Latin saying: De gustibus non est disputandum Meaning literally regarding taste, there is no dispute The phrase seems to be of medieval origin The origin is accepted as Scholastic writings because of the grammar, which is atypical A more faithful Latin rendering of the phrase might be: De gustatibus non disputandum There's some uncertainty about whether