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How accurate is the New World Translation bible? How accurate is the New World Translation Bible? My grandfather is a Jehovah's Witness and told me that the NWT bible that the Watchtower Society has produced is one of the most accurate translatio
referent identification - Why did the translators of the New World . . . Being able to tell the difference between the singular and plural pronouns can be very useful in determining their antecedents when trying to understand some scriptures Why did the translators of the New World Translation decide to drop this feature?
jesus - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange The NWT acknowledges the passage states Jesus has been involved in the creation of all things, but, they claim no other Scripture calls Jesus the Creator Thus this passage which states He is Creator but uses the term firstborn must be interpreted as saying Jesus was created
jesus - Is it a correct rendering of Acts 1,24 when the New World . . . The NWT inserts Jehovah whenever we have a direct citation of a verse of the OT In Acts 1,24 we don’t have a citation of an OT verse My question should challenge supporters of the NWT present in this forum I voluntarily correct myself if there are any scriptural reasons for translating against the greek original
Is this particular argument, regarding Col 1:16, against the meaning . . . The NWT of Col 1:16, 17 is: because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities
Do the early Coptic translations of John 1:1c prove that and The Word . . . Jehovah's Witnesses, through their New World Translation (NWT), render John 1:1c as "the Word was a god," arguing that the anarthrous Greek "θεὸς" (theos, without the definite article) indicates an indefinite or qualitative sense consistent with their Arian-like Christology
greek - Is NWTs translation of John 8:58 reasonable? - Biblical . . . In conclusion, inasmuch as the NWT Study Bible's translation of John 8:58 is based upon contradictory material presented to the reader at John 5:18 and John 10:31-36 of the NWT in regard to Jewish perceptions of Christ's claim to be the Son of God, and given the fact that the NWT Study Bible's stated translation methodology in regard to this
To whom does the Lord refer in 2 Corinthians 3:17? The "Lord" here is referring to Jehovah God, The God of Moses:- NWT 2 Corinthians 3:14-17 "But their minds were dulled For to this present day, the same veil remains unlifted when the old covenant is read, because it is taken away only by means of Christ 15 In fact, to this day whenever Moses is read, a veil lies upon their hearts 16 But when one turns to Jehovah, the veil is taken away 17
Jehovah in the New Testament - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange The NWT's claim Jehovah is justified because John was citing the Old Testament in Hebrew is not supported by the entire passage This is clear even from the NWT which mostly follows the Greek, only selectively bringing in Jehovah and road (s)
textual criticism - How can we understand differences between NWT and . . . 0 Answer We can see the difference between NWT translation and the original Greek of Acts 20:28 because the former translates it pre-determined by its theology instead of translating it based on the grammatical structure of the language John 20:28 - Scripture calls Jesus God