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How accurate is the New World Translation bible? How accurate is the New World Translation Bible? My grandfather is a Jehovah's Witness and told me that the NWT bible that the Watchtower Society has produced is one of the most accurate translatio
textual criticism - How can we understand differences between NWT and . . . 0 Answer We can see the difference between NWT translation and the original Greek of Acts 20:28 because the former translates it pre-determined by its theology instead of translating it based on the grammatical structure of the language John 20:28 - Scripture calls Jesus God
textual criticism - How can we understand differences between the NWT . . . The NWT’s “the one” lacks textual basis, misrepresenting the Hebrew to avoid Trinitarian implications Jewish tradition and all major witnesses (MT, LXX, Aquila, Theodotion, Targum) uphold “Me,” reinforcing the prophecy’s profound theological claim
greek - Is NWTs translation of John 8:58 reasonable? - Biblical . . . In conclusion, inasmuch as the NWT Study Bible's translation of John 8:58 is based upon contradictory material presented to the reader at John 5:18 and John 10:31-36 of the NWT in regard to Jewish perceptions of Christ's claim to be the Son of God, and given the fact that the NWT Study Bible's stated translation methodology in regard to this
Jehovah in the New Testament - Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange The NWT's claim Jehovah is justified because John was citing the Old Testament in Hebrew is not supported by the entire passage This is clear even from the NWT which mostly follows the Greek, only selectively bringing in Jehovah and road (s)
jesus - Is it a correct rendering of Acts 1,24 when the New World . . . The NWT inserts Jehovah whenever we have a direct citation of a verse of the OT In Acts 1,24 we don’t have a citation of an OT verse My question should challenge supporters of the NWT present in this forum I voluntarily correct myself if there are any scriptural reasons for translating against the greek original
In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as . . . The NWT translators understand without the article in has a different meaning when written with the article as in The NWT sees as equivalent to "the Father " Their doctrine is Yet how without the article is understood in verse 1:1 is rejected in verse 1:6 There arose a man that was sent forth as a representative of God: his name was John
Is this particular argument, regarding Col 1:16, against the meaning . . . The NWT of Col 1:16, 17 is: because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities
Do the early Coptic translations of John 1:1c prove that and The Word . . . There was only mild speculation by Origen, [1] who may have been influenced by Philo, [2] but nothing even remotely equivalent to what the NWT insists The suggested translation by the Watchtower (“the Word was a god”), though it may align with Arianism, does not accurately reflect the way Arians of the 4th c interpreted the text