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Why are French, Italian, Spanish etc. listed as SVO languages? French, Spanish and Italian use SVO in clauses with non-pronominal arguments Many languages make use of more than one kind of word order; the "canonical" order used in simplistic categorizations of entire languages as "SVO" vs "SOV" etc has to be based on some particular subset of clauses in the language in cases like that
syntax - Why do dominant VSO languages all have SVO as an alternative . . . Irish, Scottish and Manx Gaelic are all exclusively VSO, and SVO is only sorta-kinda possible in cleft sentences (if you ignore the initial copula and the relativiser) Welsh was originally the same, but cleft constructions have more or less become the default word order, so it does have SVO tendencies now
What grammatical features do SOV languages often share? I don't think it's true that "if a language doesn't indicate case, it'll be forced into a verb-medial order (SVO or OVS) to differentiate subject from object " If a language has strict SOV or VSO word order, for example, the identity of the subject will be unambiguous even without differential marking of the subject and the object
Why are Latin descendants SVO? - Linguistics Stack Exchange The premise holds for most Romance languages but it is difficult to categorize Spanish (the largest latin language by number of speakers) as an SVO language The earliest texts in medieval Spanish were all VSO and I, as a native Spanish speaker, tend to use VSO sentences slightly more often than SVO
SVO and SOV peoples? - Linguistics Stack Exchange Its unlikely that the split happen overnight, and the degree of dominancy of SVO over SOV may help to estimate when particular languages started to show a preference I cannot speak of many languages, but just comparing fairly rigid English with very flexible Russian is enough to see that word order preference is not equally honored among PIE
Why is Spanish SVO and not VSO? - Linguistics Stack Exchange You’re asking why Spanish is svo though it’s a pro-drop language Less obvious why is also with Italian But there’s no answer for such a question Some languages fix SVO other fix VSO word order during acquisition some fix SVO and pro-drop (spanish italian) some don’t (english) even some VSO languages drop the pronoun (Arabic)
Why is less consistent SVO more common than VSO or VOS? Consistent branching with the verb phrase as the head of the sentence would predict VSO or VOS Yet SVO is about as common as the apparently more consistent SOV, despite nouns coming on both sides of the verb SVO looks superficially like a "brace" order rather than consistently left-branching or right-branching
Ease of L2 acquisition of SOV and SVO VSO word order @jlawler on the other hand, there might be more internal diversity within the SVO languages because they’re easier to learn and therefore less constrained Contact languages and creoles tend to be SVO and they’ve gone through a real life L2-bottleneck of sorts I can think of arguments for both learnability directions being the easier one
How VSO (Verb-Subject-Object) works - Linguistics Stack Exchange But the adjectives added to my friend made it shift part of the structure to before the verb, so it is almost like SVO form This is the behavior I found for most of the other languages For example, with Welsh: I went to the store Es i i'r siop Literally: Went I the store My friend and I went to the store Aeth fy ffrind a minnau i'r siop