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grammaire - Why are both definite article (les) and possessive . . . In the second sentence, "mes" (jambes) could have been "les": the rule is not applied in this case (you might refer to that usage as the lax way of speaking); "tes" (hanches) is understandable as there is an initial specification by a possessive (mes): "les hanches" could have an unclear ring as to whose hips are meant, although that is deducible