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How is wl- pronounced? - English Language Usage Stack Exchange The pronunciation of wl and wr is so ingrained that Minkova need not cover how they would be pronounced in Old English; meanwhile, she carefully documents how the sounds would have changed into Middle English
pronunciation - Silent w in words starting with wr- - English . . . Not My Field, so subject to correction: In Old English the “voiced labiovelar approximant” w was in fact pronounced in the initial clusters wr and wl Lass, Cambridge History of the English Language describes the loss of this pronunciation in the context of “Onset-cluster reduction” (III, page 122): Witch which, not knot, Nash gnash, rite write are homophones in most varieties of
contribute to achieve or contribute to achieving? [duplicate] Does this answer your question? "contribute to investigating" or "contribute to investigate" As @Colin Fine says there, 'contribute' does not catenate with a to-infinitive The 'to = in order to' reading here would be unidiomatic and very awkward
How is the ending -le or -el determined? - English Language Usage . . . Words that in Modern English are written ending with -le derive from words ending in -el, -el- or are related with such words candle Old English candel cattle Anglo-Norman catel ladle Old English hlædel paddle Low German paddeln rattle Low German ratelen The spelling of those words is changed, but the pronunciation was keep closer to the original related word
send . . . both me and . . . vs send . . . both myself and . . . Which is correct preferable in the context of a third party sending file X via email: "please send X to both me and Ann" or "please send X to both myself and Ann" and why? Google returns hundreds of
Will I vs. I will - English Language Usage Stack Exchange As in the following sentence: When I have the time, I will watch a new episode of one of the aforementioned Netflix shows, though rarely I will watch one of the shows below: vs When I have the
grammar - When to use most or the most - English Language Usage . . . This is utterly incorrect Using the most in the example in the question here is perfectly grammatical and exceedingly common There is nothing ungrammatical or incorrect about it The adverbial use of the definite noun the most synonymous with the bare-adverbial most to modify an entire clause or predicate has been in use since at least the 1500s and is an integral part of English
I have a question for you Vs I have a question to you When properly quoted for Google search, the numbers are: "I have a question for you" 28M results, "I have a question to you" 3M results If usage on the net is a guide, the former over the latter 10:1